Test Your Knowledge

Headshot of Dawn Elise DeWitt, MD, MSc, CMedEd, MACP, FRACP, FRCP-London · Senior Associate Dean, Collaboration for InterProfessional Health Education Research & Scholarship (CIPHERS)
Dawn Elise DeWitt
MD, MSc, CMedEd, MACP, FRACP, FRCP-London · Senior Associate Dean, Collaboration for InterProfessional Health Education Research & Scholarship (CIPHERS)
envelope icon
Table of Contents

Patient 1: Marie

Tap the image to view the case.
A 48-year-old female was brought to the emergency department via an emergency response vehicle following a high-speed motor vehicle collision. The air bags failed to deploy, and extrication was required. First responders report that she had to be resuscitated in the field and twice en route and is currently being manually ventilated. There is concern that she may have suffered brain death.

Question

Which of the following examination findings would confirm a diagnosis of brain death?

Cyanosis:

  • While the patient may present with cyanosis, if you were to withdraw mechanical ventilation such as when an apnea challenge is performed, this is not a required finding for a physician to declare brain death.

Loss of corneal reflex (correct answer):

  • In order to declare brain death, the patient must not have any brain stem reflexes present. Other examples of brainstem reflexes include gag reflex and vestibular ocular reflex.

Positive plantar reflex:

  • This is a sign that can be present in the setting of come or disorder of consciousness; however, it is not a key physical exam finding to declare brain death.

Systolic blood pressure less than 100:

  • Again, this patient may have a low SBP due to blood loss. However, in order to declare brain death, the patient has to maintain an SBP>100 is required prior to testing to declare brain death.

Unresponsive to stimuli:

  • While this is also true of a patient who has had brain death, being unarousable is also true of a coma, which is not the same as brain death, and patients in a coma do have a chance at recovery.

 

Keywords: Disorders of consciousness; brain death

Resources

  1. Starr, R. Brain death. StatPearls [Updated 2021, Oct 14]. In:StatPearls. Retrieved January 14, 2022.
  2. NeuroBytes: Medical Student Series: Brain Death: A Case-Based Discussion. American Academy of Neurology. (n.d.). Retrieved January 14, 2022.

Patient 2: Roberta

Tap the arrow to view the case.
A 56-year-old woman who is a long-standing patient of your practice is coming in for an acute visit. For the past few months, she has been experiencing “very intense” headaches, and they are affecting her ability to perform well at work and sleep at night. She has a history of migraine with aura (flashing lights). Currently her headaches are unilateral, more painful than usual (8/10 vs. 6/10), and do not improve when she lays in a dark room with an ice pack or when she takes sumatriptan.
She denies any recent illnesses or changes in her lifestyle. Her past medical history is notable for hypertension well controlled with a beta blocker, migraines with aura, which she has a prescription for PRN sumatriptan, and stage 3 breast cancer in remission for 5 years being followed by an oncologist. Her mother has a history of migraines with aura, and her father had T2DM on insulin.
On physical exam, the patient appears uncomfortable and is pressing her fingers to her right temple. Cardiac and pulmonary exams are normal. A detailed neuro exam reveals no focal abnormalities.

Question

Which of the following elements in this patient’s history and physical exam suggests the need for imaging now?

Family history:

  • Migraines often run in families and would not be red flag for possible life-threatening cause of migraine.

Lack of response to Sumatriptan:

  • While this could be a sign of new headache patter—which can be a red flag—this is also commonly seen in medication overuse headaches and would not necessarily be enough to warrant imaging the patient immediately.

History of breast cancer (correct answer):

  • With the patient’s past history of an advanced stage breast cancer, it is possible that the cancer has recurred and could possibly have a brain metastasis and would warrant imaging to rule out.

Unilateral distribution of pain:

  • Migraines are often in a unilateral distribution and is not a red flag.

Visual disturbances:

  • Given that the patient’s prior migraines are with aura, this itself isn’t necessarily a red flag, but you should confirm that the visual disturbance is the same as her past migraines.

 

Keywords: Headache

Resources

  1. NeuroBytes: Medical Student Series: The Approach to a Patient With Headache.  Aan. (n.d.). Retrieved January 14, 2022.
  2. DeWitt, D., and Coxon, K. (n.d.). Headache and Migraine. Lecture.
  3. Costello, F. Headache. MEDSKL. (n.d.). Retrieved January 14, 2022.

Patient 3: Dawson

Tap the image to view the case.
A 76-year-old man is brought into the emergency room by his wife. She said, "An hour ago, when they were cleaning up after breakfast, he started acting strange." She said he was cleaning off the counter and said he was finished, but the entire left side of the counter was still messy. The wife also noticed he cut his left hand on a knife while cleaning and didn’t seem to notice until she showed him.

Prior to this incident, he was completely normal. On physical exam, the patient had left visual field deficits and was unable see you when you stood to his left.

Question

Given the patient’s initial history, in arterial territory, where would you expect to find an occlusion?

Right anterior cerebral artery:

  • Occlusion in this territory would likely lead to left sided paresis and sensory loss of the lower extremity.

Right posterior cerebral:

  • This would present with visual loss and loss of sensation.

Right middle cerebral artery (correct answer):

  • This patient is displaying signs of left sided hemineglect, which is consistent with right MCA in most patients, as this is the non-dominant side in 90% of patients.

Right cerebellar:

  • Occlusion in this territory would likely cause ataxia and slurred speech.

Right lenticulostriate:

  • A stroke affecting this region would result in purely motor deficits in both upper and lower extremities.

 

Keywords: Ischemic stroke, cerebral vascular territories

Resources

  1. Konan LM, Reddy V, Mesfin FB. Neuroanatomy, Cerebral Blood Supply. [Updated 2021 Jul 31]. In: StatPearls [Internet]. Treasure Island (FL): StatPearls Publishing; 2022 Jan-.
  2. Sarwar A, Emmady PD. Spatial Neglect. [Updated 2021 Aug 30]. In: StatPearls [Internet]. Treasure Island (FL): StatPearls Publishing; 2022 Jan-.S 
  3. Le, T. (2019). Neurology. In First aid for the USMLE step 2 CK: Clinical knowledge. essay, McGraw Hill Education.

Patient 4: Ivana

Tap the arrow to view the case.
An 84-year-old female is brought to the ER via ambulance after her daughter found her lying on the floor of her home in the morning. Her daughter states that when they went to bed 10 hours ago, her mother was normal, but this morning she is unable to move her right arm and is unable to speak.
Her past medical history is notable for hypertension managed with an ACE inhibitor and diet-controlled T2DM. She has no prior history of strokes, no known trauma, and no recent falls. On physical exam, you note right sided facial droop, right upper extremity strength of 2/5, and expressive aphasia. Tap the arrow to see her non-contrast head CT.

Image from Radiopedia, see citation.

Question

What would be the most appropriate management of this patient?

Administer tPA:

  • Based on the CT, this patient appears to have suffered an ischemic infarct to the MCA, which you could treat with tPA; however this patient’s last known normal was 10 hours ago, well outside the 4.5-hr window for tPA administration.

Recommend supportive care only:

  • This patient has not been fully evaluated, and at this point it would be too premature to withdraw care at this point. If this patient was presenting with a hemorrhagic stroke, supportive care might be an option, as interventions are limited and may not change prognosis.

Administer Heparin:

  • There is no current evidence or recommendations that show benefits from urgent anticoagulation.

Goal BP less than 220/120 (correct answer):

  • In the case of ischemic stroke, recent evidence suggests that permissive hypertension may improve patient outcomes. Allowing a patient’s BP to rise to 220/120 as long they are not showing any adverse effects from elevated BP is warranted.

Goal BP less than 160/90:

  • See the answer above.

 

Keywords: Ischemic stroke; stroke management; tPA

Resources

  1. Gaillard, F., Rahman, F. Middle cerebral artery (MCA) infarct. Reference article, Radiopaedia.org. (accessed on 02 May 2022) https://doi.org/10.53347/rID-1617
  2. Le, T. (2019). Neurology. In First aid for the USMLE step 2 CK: Clinical knowledge. essay, McGraw Hill Education.
  3. Konan LM, Reddy V, Mesfin FB. Neuroanatomy, Cerebral Blood Supply. [Updated 2021 Jul 31]. In: StatPearls [Internet]. Treasure Island (FL): StatPearls Publishing; 2022 Jan-.
  4. Powers, W. J., Rabinstein, A. A., Ackerson, T., et al. (2019). Guidelines for the early management of patients with acute ischemic stroke: 2019 update to the 2018 guidelines for the early management of acute ischemic stroke: A guideline for healthcare professionals. The American Heart Association/American Stroke Association. Stroke, 50(12).

Patient 5: Davíd

Tap the image to view the case.
A 56-year-old male carpenter is in your spine clinic today after being referred by his family practice physician for 6 months of lower back pain. He states that he has had back pain off and on for years, but it has gotten worse over the last few months. “I can’t stand long enough to finish woodworking projects or walk my dog even a few blocks without taking breaks. The pain is horrible. Now it goes down past my knee and sometimes my foot feels like little ants poking around in it.”

Question

What of the following would indicate that this patient would be a candidate for spinal nerve decompression surgery?

Worsening pain:

  • Pain is never an indication for spinal surgery, as it rarely improves the pain a patient is experiencing. It can, however, improve nerve pain but is not the first-line treatment option for back pain.

Leg paresthesias:

  • This can indicate possible nerve damage, which would indicate the need for surgical nerve decompression, but it can also be a sign of reversible nerve inflammation, and an EMG is needed to evaluate nerve health.

Back pain impacting his daily life:

  • While this is important to appreciate when evaluating the patient and while participating in patient shared decision-making, it is not an indication for spinal surgery.

EMG indicating nerve damage (correct answer):

  • EMG is the best way to evaluate nerve health. Nerve compression that is causing irreversible nerve damage is the best indicator for the necessity of surgical nerve decompression over less invasive options.

MRI confirming stenosis:

  • This can be an indicator of possible future nerve damage, but it would not be enough of an indicator for an invasive surgical option until either confirmation of irreversible nerve damage or less invasive options have been exhausted.

 

Keywords: Spinal stenosis; EMG; nerve compression

Resources

  1. Patel, A. M. Lumbar stenosis. PM&R KnowledgeNow. Updated Dec. 15, 2020.
  2. Saad, A. E. A., Vazzquez-Galliano, J, Chen, Y. Basic Electrodiagnostics for the Referring Physician. PM&R KnowledgeNow. Updated Sep. 28. 2020.

Patient 6: Anika

Tap the arrow to view the case.
A 67-year-old woman with past medical history of hypertension, dyslipidemia, atrial fibrillation on apixaban, and recently diagnosed dementia presents to the Emergency Department after being found unresponsive and down on the floor by nursing home staff this morning. Per her family, she was endorsing a mild headache during their visit the evening prior.
It is unknown if the patient had any recent falls or head trauma, or how long she was down for. Upon arrival to the ED, emergent intubation was performed for airway management. You are about to examine the patient when the nurse pulls you aside to view the results of the non-contrast CT scan. Tap the arrow to see the CT scan.

Image from: Neurosurgical Atlas.

Question

Which of the following is the most likely etiology for the CT findings?

Middle meningeal artery bleed:

  • Is consistent with an epidural hematoma.

Bridging veins rupture (correct answer):

  • This non-contrast CT head is consistent with subdural hemorrhage. Bridging vein rupture is the most common cause.

Saccular aneurysm rupture:

  • Is consistent with a subarachnoid hemorrhage.

Atherosclerotic embolic event:

  • Is consistent with an ischemic stroke.

Patient 7: Kevin

Tap the arrow to view the case.
A 65-year-old retired banker presents to his primary care provider for his annual exam, accompanied by his wife. The patient has a past medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, diverticulosis, and benign prostate hypertrophy. Family history is significant for an uncle with Alzheimer’s dementia. The patient drinks alcohol socially but denies any tobacco or illicit drug use.
The patient reports he feels great and states he is the healthiest 64-year-old that has ever lived. He goes on to say he isn’t sure why he still comes to the doctor’s office because it is impossible for him ever get sick or ill.

His wife expresses concerns about her husband’s personality changing significantly over the years. She states he used to be reserved and responsible, but now is flamboyant and reckless, especially with their finances. He often lashes out for no reason and makes “a scene.” Last week, he bought a new car without telling anyone. The patient laughs at this and states everyone should be more like him. His wife denies noticing any apparent memory issues, new tremors or rigidity, or changes in speech.
Physical exam and vital signs are unremarkable. Mini mental exam score is 28/30. There have been no new medications or diet changes. Routine lab work comes back within normal limit. The patient and his wife decline further work-up with imaging.
Sadly, the patient passes away several months later following complications from diverticulitis. The family requests an autopsy be performed.

Question

Which of the following is likely to be found on histology of brain tissue?

Ubiquitinated TDP-43 (correct answer):

  • This patient likely has frontotemporal dementia with noted grandiose behavioral changes. Ubiquitinated TDP-43 is a common histologic finding. 

Alpha-synuclein:

  • Is consistent with Lewy bodies in Lewy body dementia.

Senile plaques in gray matter with extracellular beta-amyloid core:

  • Is consistent with Alzheimer’s disease. 

Spongiform cortex:

  • Is consistent with Crutzfeldt-Jakob disease.

Depigmentation of substantia nigra:

  • Is consistent with Parkinson disease.

Patient 8: Marina

Tap the image to view the case.
You are a fourth-year medical student on your neurology rotation. You are excited to practice and advance your neurological exam. Your attending asks you to perform a thorough exam on one of the patients. Your attending introduces the patient as a 58-year-old woman with a history of hypertension, dyslipidemia, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and she currently smokes 2 packs/day.

While doing your exam, you notice the patient’s right eye seems to be displaced medially. When testing extraocular motor movements, the patient is unable to move her right eye away from her nose to look laterally. Her left eye moves normally. The rest of her neurological exam is unremarkable.

Question

Which of the following cranial nerves (CN) corresponds to the likely deficit?

CN 2:

  • CN 2 corresponds to the optic nerve, which assists with vision and the efferent limb of pupil reflex.

CN3:

  • CN 3 corresponds to the oculomotor nerve, which assists in eyelid function, most of the eye muscles movement (superior rectus, inferior rectus, medial rectus, inferior oblique), and the afferent limb of pupil reflex.

CN 4:

  • CN 4 corresponds to the trochlear nerve, which supplies the superior oblique muscle that moves the eyes down/out and inward.

CN 5:

  • CN 5 corresponds to the trigeminal nerve, which assists in facial sensation, taste, jaw movement, and the afferent limb of corneal reflex.

CN 6 (correct answer):

  • This patient has a lateral rectus muscle palsy, likely secondary to microvascular disease. CN 6 (abducens nerve) supplies the lateral rectus muscle.

CN 7:

  • CN 7 corresponds to the facial nerve, which assists in facial expression, taste, and the efferent limb of the corneal reflex.

Patient 9: John Doe

Tap the image to view the case.
You are on your emergency medicine rotation when a “John Doe” is brought in by EMS. Per report, the patient was involved in a bar fight during which another individual pulled out a knife and stabbed the patient in the lower back. The patient is heavily intoxicated but arousable and is able to maintain his airway. You get a glimpse of the patient’s back while he is being transferred from the stretcher. Based on the stab wound, it appears that the knife was inserted on the left side of the patient’s lower thoracic spinal cord region. After putting in lab and imaging orders, you go back to examine the patient.

Question

Which of the following is likely to be found on examination?

Right side loss of pain and temperature below the level of injury (correct answer):

  • The patient likely has Brown-Sequard Syndrome from traumatic hemisection spinal cord injury. Below the injury, spinothalamic tract damage is expected on the opposite side as the tracts decussates at the level of the spinal nerve.

Right side loss of proprioception and vibration:

  • You would expect ipsilateral (left) loss of proprioception and vibration below the level of injury due to dorsal spinal column damage. The dorsal spinal column decussates in the medulla.

Left-side Horner syndrome:

  • You would expect ipsilateral Horner syndrome if the lesion were above T1 due to oculosympathetic pathway damage. This patient appears to have a lesion in the lower thoracic region.

Left-side lower motor neuron signs below the injury:

  • You would expect ipsilateral upper motor neuron signs below the level of injury due to corticospinal tract damage. Lower motor neuron signs would be expected at the level of the injury.

Patient 10: Vijay

Tap the image to view the case.
A 60-year-old man with newly diagnosed Parkinson disease presents to follow-up on his medications, accompanied by his wife. At the last visit several months ago, a new medication for his Parkinson disease was started. Today, the patient states he feels like his Parkinson symptoms are much improved. His wife mentions that his restless legs at night seem to have resolved as well. However, the patient has been more impulsive, as he almost got into several car accidents while recklessly driving. His wife states that on the way here, he purposely went through three red lights.

Question

What is the likely mechanism of action of the patient’s new medication for management of his Parkinson disease, that is resulting in his change in behavior?

Glutamate NMBA antagonist:

  • Amantadine toxicity generally presents with edema, livedo reticularis, ataxia.

Dopamine agonist (correct answer):

  • This patient was likely started on a dopamine agonist, such as pramipexole and ropinirole, which can also be used for restless leg syndrome. Effects can include impulse control disorders.

Dopamine precursor:

  • Levodopa is a dopamine precursor. This medication is generally first line treatment for patients >65. Common effects include wearing off effects, dyskinesia, and psychosis.

Adrenal steroid with mineralocorticoid properties:

  • Fludrocortisone can be used to help manage symptoms of orthostatic hypotension caused by other Parkinson medications. It alone is not a medication for the management of Parkinson.

Image credits

Unless otherwise noted, images are from Adobe Stock.